HR Exam Expected Questions 13

1. What is Decision Making ?

2. What is meant by defining the problem ?

3. What is the alternative course of action in decision making ?

HR Examination Expected Questioins 12

1. What does skill refer to ?

2. What are the different skills required for manager ?

3. What is Technical skill ?

HUMAN RESOURCE EXPECTED QUESTION LESSION 11

Today i will post 5 Important Expected questions lession 11

1.What is human resource Planning ?

2. What are the key Elements in HR Planning ?

3. What are the Objectives of HR Planning ?

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTION 10

1. When a planning problem does arise, what is the next action ?

2. Planning is essentially a decision making, since it involves, what ?

3. What is a decision in management ?

4. Quantitative Technique refers to ?

5. What does operation research mean ?


ANSWERS

1. Developing alternative course of action to rectify the problem
2. Selection from alternatives
3. Researcing at a proper conclusion after consideration
4. Models, similation, resouyrce allocation technique, Wating line problem and the queuing theory, Gaming and game
 theory and probanility theory
5. All quatitative decision making technique

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 9

1. What does stafing indicaete ?
 
2. What is directing ?
 
3. What is importance of controlling ?
 
4. What are the elements of organisation process ?
 
5. Management expert terry said " Today's efforts are tomorrow's work that manager thought about yesturday " what is it ?



ANSWERS


1. An attempt to select and develop right type of personnel as per requirement
2. Instructions on how to do something or how to reach the destination or a goal
3. Ensure that activities are in accordance with the terms of the plan
4. Departmentation, delegation and decentralisation
5. The planner must be able to look into the future and visualise proposed activities for completion in time

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 8

1. Who did contributed the principles of group dynamics and human, relation theory of     management ?

2. What is the importance of management in modern social system ?

3. What does the process of management means ?

4. What does planning refer to ?

5. What does organising stand for ?


ANSWERS

1. Mary Parker Follet

2. Creates a strong social awareness about moral and social obligations of business in society

3. Goal is achieved through certain fundamental management functions

4. Planning to dridge the gap from where we are and where we want to go

5. Integration of various departments and allotting functional duties

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 7

1. Organisational efficiency is the contribution of ?

2. What does Organisational Structure denote ?

3. How does management pursue its objectives ?

4. What do you understand by information Technology ?

5. Management means what a manager does, who said this ?


ANSWERS

1. Members of the organisation
2. A framework of formal relationship that has been established
3. Through men, money, materials, machines and methods
4. Use of systems like telecomunication and computer for storing, retrieving and sending           information
5. Louis Allen

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 6

1. How can an Organisation be distinguished ?

2. What does relationshp mean in management ?

3. Who did organisation bureaucracy ?

4. What do you understand by management policies ?

5. what does STRATEGY INDICATES ?


ANSWERS

1. Body of units, which are independent
2. Interpersonak influence exercised in asituation and directed to achive the results
3. Max Webber
4. Directions to management activies
5. Programme of action to achive objectives

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 5

1. What do you understand by ROLE ?

2. What is ORGANISATION ?

3. The principles of DIVISION OF WORK should be applied to all kinds of work technical, as well as managerial.Whose view is this ?

4. Centralisation and Decentralisation are require to achive ?

5. What does Creation of Organisational environment mean ?


ANSWERS


1. The pattern of action expected of a person
2. It is a social entity
3. Henry Fayol
4. Ensure the best overall performance
5. Application of social norms, values and goals in work culture

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 4

1. What is the contribution of Robert Owen to the history of Management ?

2. Who did suggest time study technique in Management ?

3. Who is the author of the book "General & Industrial Administration" ?

4. State the importance of POWER

5. What is STATUS ?



ANSWERS

1. Man should not be treated as secoundry and inferior to machine
2. Charles Babbage
3. Henry Fayol
4. One's ability to influence others
5. Social rating of an individual in comparison with others

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 3

1. How does the executive use his powers ?

2. What is the meaning of impersonal nature ?

3. What do you mean by staff duties ?

4. What does Esprit-de-corps mean ?

5. How is Henry Fayol related to management ?

ANSWERS

1. Through fromal sanction
2. Conducting with out fear or favour
3. Providing the advisory services to managers by the experts in the organisation
4. A feelng of pride and loyality, uniting members of a group
5. Principles of division of work

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTIONS 2

1. What is PETER DRUCKER'S opinion about MBO ?

2. Who is called the father of scientific management ?

3. What is UNITY OF COMMAND indiacate ?

4. What does SCALAR CHAIN means ?

5. What is AUTHORITY ?

ANSWERS

1. Philosophy based on human behaviour and motivation
2. F.W. TAYLOR
3. An employee should receive orders from one superior
4. A line of authority from superior to subordinate used for proper communication
5. Capacity to make others act according to your wish

IBPS SO HR 2015 EXPECTED QUESTION 1

1. What is Management ?

2. Do you agree that the management and administration are the same ?

3. What do you mean by management skill ?

4. Is management a science or an art ?

5. Management by objective refers to ?


ANSWERS

1. The art of getting things done
2. Having certain differences
3. Conceptual skill, Human skill, Technical skill
4. It is an art as well as a science
5. Effective way of practising basic functions of management

UPDATED IBPS SO HR MODEL PAPER

1. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by HR department?

a) Training and Development

b) Accounting

c) Pay and reward

d) Recruitment and selection

e) None of the above


2. Human Resource Management function does not involve:

a) Recruitment

b) Selection

c) Cost control

d) Training

e) None of the above


3. The focus of Human Resource Management revolves around:

a) Machine

b) Motivation

c) Money

d) None of the above

e) All the above


4. Human Resource Management aims to maximise employees as well as organisational

a) Effectiveness

b) Economy

c) Efficiency
d) Performance

e) None of the above


5. Which of the Article of Indian Constitution ensures equal opportunity for employment?

a) Article 16(1)

b) Article 16(2)

c) Article 17(A)

d) Article 16(B)

e) Article 16(C)


6. Changing efforts to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity is called:

a) Freezing

b) Unfreezing

c) Planned change

d) Movement

e) None of the above


7. Which of the following is not an element of the management process?

a) Pricing

b) Staffing

c) Planning

d) Controlling

e) None of the above

8. Which of the following is not a managerial function of HRM?

a) Planning

b) Organising

c) Controlling

d) All the above

e) None of the above


9. Which of the following are the operative functions of management?

a) Job Analysis

b) Recruitment

c) Selection

d) All the above

e) None of the above


10. The process by which management determines how an organization should move from its current manpower position to its desired manpower position is known as:

a) Human Resource Positioning

b) Human Resource Planning

c) Human Resource Development

d) Human Skill Development

e) None


11. The ability to understand what someone else is feeling is known as;

a) Remembering

b) Questioning
c) Critical listening

d) Responding

e) Empathy


12. A prominent politician was heard saying that people state was incapable of joining the army. He was ________:

a) Stereotyping

b) Projecting

c) Hallucinating

d) All of the above

e) None of the above


13. In which stage individual’s development is to achieve an ego identity?

a) Adolescence

b) Young adulthood

c) Adulthood

d) Maturity

e) None of the above


14. What does Hawthorne studies indicate?

a) The approach of the managers was right

b) Work processes were considered to be more important

c) Productivity will have relationship and bearing on Employee’s Emotions

d) People were not significant factor

e) All the above

15. What is most essential for achieving Work-Life balance?

a) Time management

b) Efficiency

c) Assertiveness

d) Emotional maturity

e) None of the above

16. What is the right order of stages of adulthood given by Erik Erikson?

a) Maturity, Young adulthood, Adulthood, Adolescence

b) Adolescence, Young adulthood, Maturity, Adulthood

c) Adolescence, Young adulthood, Adulthood, Maturity

d) Adolescence, Adulthood, Young adulthood, Maturity

e) None of the above


17. Mr. Dravid is a brilliant manager in Karnataka Cricket Bank. He is one of the few persons picked up by the top management from an IIM after MBA. Always on two phones at a time, he boasts about having no patience with the laggards. Often, he can be heard aggressively yelling at people on small issues. What type of person is Mr. Dravid?

a) Type B personality

b) Type A personality

c) Type C person
d) Type D person

e) None of the above



18. At which stage an individual starts establishing close relationship, starts forming and working in a group?

a) Adolescence

b) Young adulthood

c) Adulthood

d) Maturity

e) None of the above


19. Managers should adopt a………………… approach to deal with indiscipline in the organization.

a) Negative

b) Positive

c) Natural

d) Human

e) Behavioral


20. In which concept an employee develop a plan for upward movement within the same profession using organizational hierarchy?

a) Plateau career

b) Linear career concept

c) Steady state concept

d) Spiral career

e) None of the above

21. In which pattern, individuals choose a profession, acquire higher skills but do not choose to go higher up in the hierarchy?

a) Plateau career

b) Linear career concept

c) Steady state concept

d) Spiral career

e) Horizontal Career Concept


22. Individuals shift from one job to another not necessarily related to previous one without acquiring any excellence. Which career pattern satisfies this?

a) Transitory Career Concept

b) Linear Career Concept

c) Steady State Concept

d) Linear Bend Theory

e) None of the above


23. Under which career concept, an individual take on a new job, work hard, perform well, move up in status and rank, then move on to another type of work and follow the same pattern of development and performance?

a) Plateau career

b) Linear career concept

c) Steady state concept

d) Spiral career

e) Any of the above

24. Who gave Achievement Motivation Theory?

a) David C. McCelland and his associates

b) Clayton Alderfer

c) James Stacy Adams

d) Fredrick Herzberg

e) None of the above


25. ________ refers to assigning more and more jobs of same level to diversify the skills of a person?

a) Job Enlargement

b) Job Enrichment

c) Job Rotation

d) Job placement

e) None of the above


26. _______ means shifting an employee from one job to another at a same level with different functionality.

(a) Job Enlargement

b) Job Enrichment

c) Job Rotation

d) Job assignment

e) None of the above


27. Which theory assumes that the consequence of an individual’s behavior in one situation influences that individual’s behavior in a similar situation?

a) Reinforcement Theory
b) Adam’s equity theory

c) Achievement motivation theory

d) ERG theory

e) None of the above


28. Communication has no beginning or end. And is thus considered as an:

a) Transaction

b) Process

c) Speech

d) Meditation

e) Interaction


29. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes:

a) Upwards to the right

b) Downwards to the right

c) Upward to the left

d) Horizontally

e) None of the above


30. Probability theory had its origin in

_______ games

a) Gambling

b) Travelling

c) Sports

d) Banking

e) None of these

31. Which of the systems will help in achieving HRD goals?

a) Training and Development

b) Performance Appraisal

c) Feedback and counseling

d) All of the above

e) None of the above


32. Johari Window concept is most useful for:

a) Understanding others

b) Self-Awareness

c) Working in Teams

d) Improving inter-personal relations

e) Improving other’s skills


33. The process of capturing the tacit knowledge of people in a systematic manner for future use is called_______:

a) Data entry

b) Information technology

c) Knowledge management

d) HR Management

e) All of the above together


34. _______ as a theory is a framework for the expansion of human capital within an organization through the development of both the organization and the individual to achieve performance improvement.
a) Human Resource Development

b) Human Resource management

c) Training and Development

d) Human Skill Reinforcement

e) None of the above


35. How HRD is helpful for employees of the organization?

a) To acquire or sharpen capabilities required to perform various functions associated with their present or expected future job

b) To develop their general capabilities as individuals and discover and exploit their own inner potential for their own and/ or organizational development purpose.

c) To develop an organizational culture in which supervisor – subordinate relationships, teamwork and collaborations among subunits are strong and contribute to the professional well-being, motivation and pride of the employees.

d) All of the Above

e) None of the above


36. Which theory holds that learner is passive in the process of learning?

a) Mechanistic Theory

b) Cognitive Theory

c) Organism Theory

d) Inspiring Theory

e) None of the above

37. Which theory is based on the proposition that human beings are different from other living things?

a) Mechanistic theory

b) Cognitive theory

c) Organism theory

d) Demonstrative Theory

e) None of the above


38. In which type of theory, the purpose of learning is to teach the brain?

a) Mechanistic theory

b) Cognitive theory

c) Organism theory

d) Demonstrative theory

e) All the above


39. Learning occurs only when learners have ‘freedom to learn’. Which of the following theories hold this statement true?

a) Mechanistic theory

b) Cognitive theory

c) Organism theory

d) Assertive theory

e) None of the above


40. Mechanistic (or Behaviorist) theories, Cognitive theories and Organismic (humanistic) theories are three theories of learning. Which one ofthese theories equates man with his brain?

a) Behaviorist or mechanistic theories

b) Cognitive theories

c) Organismic or humanistic theories

d) Assertive theories

e) All the above



41. Humanistic theory is also known as:

a) Organismic Theory

b) Behaviorist Theory

c) Cognitive Theory

d) Mechanistic Theory

e) None of the above


42. What is the full form of SAT?

a) Systematic approach to training

b) System approach to training

c) Systematic approach to train

d) None of the above e) All the above


43. Mr. Dhoni is the Branch Manager in Jharkand Bank Ltd. He makes it a point to visit the prominent deposit customers himself to deliver their deposit receipts. He does not even take the “Relationship Manager” appointed for this purpose. Mr. Dhoni believes that none of the new generation staff is good enough to deal with such tasks. What is the “Life position” taken by Mr. Dhoni as regards the “Relationship Manager” as
per the “Theory of Life Position” propounded by Dr. Thomas Harris?

a) I am OK, you are OK

b) I am Ok, You are not OK

c) I am not OK, you are not Ok

d) I am not OK, you are not OK

e) None of the above



44. A sales man in a shop showed a Salwar Suit and told the customer that the cloth is very good, but expensive. He was using the following transaction:

a) Duplex

b) Angular

c) Complementary

d) Convincing

e) None of the above



45. What is the right order of stages of adulthood given by Erik Erikson?

a) Maturity, Young adulthood, Adulthood, Adolescence

b) Adolescence, Young adulthood, Maturity, Adulthood

c) Adolescence, Young adulthood, Adulthood, Maturity

d) Adolescence, Adulthood, Young adulthood, Maturity

e) None of the above

46. The Concept of Career path relates to

_______ of movements and deciding the ______ for each stage.

a) Sequence, time period

b) Number, candidates

c) Decision, number

d) Type, time period

e) None of the above


47. The main role function of the Welfare secretary was to meet the needs of

the workers and  prevent them

from____:

a) Forming Unions

b) Leaving the Job

c) Gossiping during duty

d) Disturbing other workers

e) None of the above


48. Union formations were seen in the

______of development of HRM:

a) First phase

b) Second Phase

c) Third phase

d) Unions have been present even before HRM came in to existence

e) Cooperative moment


49. Climate Management is possible by using HRIT. Climate information is gathered using:

a) Job satisfaction surveys
b) Performance appraisals by superiors

c) Studying attendance patterns in different weathers

d) 360 degrees appraisal

e) All the above


50. Job Analysis technique involves:

a) Job Description

b) Job Specification

c) Job Evaluation

d) All the above

e) None of the above


KEY

1) b           2) c 3) d   4) a   5) a   6) b
7) a           8) a 9) d   10) e 11) e 12) a
13) b 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) c
19) b 20) d 21) b 22) c 23) a 24) a
25) a 26) c 27) a 28) b 29) a 30) a
31) d 32) b 33) c 34) a 35) d 36) a
37) b 38) b 39) c 40) b 41) a 42) a
43) b 44) b 45) c 46) a 47) a 48) a
49) a 50) d

TODAY IBPS SO HR MODEL PAPERS JAN 22 bb

                                                            http://ibpseg.blogspot.in/



1. Match the following :
List-I List-II
(a) F. J.
Roethlisberger
& Dickson
(i) New Patterns
of
Management
(b) Elton Mayo (ii) The Human
side of
enterprise
(c) Douglas Mc
Gregor
(iii) The
Management
and Worker
(d) Rensis Likert (iv) The human
problems of
industrial
civilization
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

2. Who is associated with the
‘illumination experiment’ of the
Hawthorne experiment
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) George A. Pennock
(C) F. J. Roethlisberger
(D) None of the above

3. The paper “Engineer as an
Economist”, which influence F. W.
Taylor to develop his Scientific
Management Principles was
authored by
(A) Charles A. Babbage
(B) Henry Gnatt
(C) Henry R. Towne
(D) Louis D. Brandies

4. The systematic process of making
job valuation determinations about a
job based upon its content and the
way is which it actually functions
within the organization is called :
(A) Job Determination
(B) Job Analysis
(C) Job Evaluation
(D) Job Grading

5. Sensitivity training is also known as :
(A) X- group training
(B) Y – group training
(C) t – group training
(D) Core group training

6. In which public sector organization
quality circles was first introduced in
India.
(A) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.
(B) Bharath Earth Movers Ltd.
(C) Bharath Heavy Electricals
Ltd.
(D) Hindustan Machine Tools
Ltd.

7. Which is not the characteristics of
grievances ?
(A) Factual
(B) Fabricated
(C) Disguised
(D) Imaginary

8. Match the following :
Enactment Year
(a) Industrial
employment
Standing orders Act
(i) 1948
(b) Industrial Disputs
Act
(ii) 1926
(c) Factories Act (iii) 1947
(d) Trade Unions Act (iv) 1946
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

9. List of unfair labour practices on the
part of the trade unions and
employers was included in
(A) Factories Act
(B) Industrial Dispute Act
(C) Trade union Act
(D) None of the above

10. Not more than 50% of members of
the office bears of Trade union can
be outsiders, as per provisions of
legislations.
(A) Industrial Dispute Act
(B) Trade Union Act
(C) Mines Act
(D) ESI Act

11. Who coined the term Scientific
Management ?
(A) Louis D. Brandies
(B) F. W. Taylor
(C) Douglas Mc Gregor
(D) None of the above

12. Who propagated the quality of work
life as a descending participation
mechanism ?
(A) Frederick Herzberg
(B) Eric Tryst
(C) A. K. Rice
(D) John T. Dunlop


13. Statutory Minimum wage is fixed
under
(A) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(C) Workmen’s Compensation
Act, 1923
(D) Minimum Wages Act, 1948

14. The employee State Insurance Act
was enacted the basis of which
committee’s report ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar Committee
(B) B. P. Adarkar Committee
(C) Royal Commission on Labour
(D) Labour Investigation
Committee

15. Who is the author of the book “Fifth
Discipline the Art and Practice of the
Learning Organization” ?
(A) Peter Clark
(B) Peter Segne
(C) Peter F. Drucker
(D) Tom Peters

16. Who has advanced the single loop
and double loop learning models ?
(A) Albert Bandura
(B) Robert Blake
(C) Robert Katz
(D) Chris Argyris

17. “Creating jobs, guaranteeing rights
at work, extending social protection
and promoting social dialogue” are
contents of which of the following
programmes of ILO ?
(A) Human Rights
(B) Decent Work
(C) International Programme on the
Elimination of Child Labour
(D) INDUS Child Labour Project

18. In which company ‘Six Sigma’ was
first experimented ?
(A) Toyota
(B) Motorola
(C) Sony
(D) Ford

19. The philosophy of ‘never-ending
improvement’ in total quality
management is called
(A) Kanaban
(B) Business Process
Re-engineering
(C) Benchmarking
(D) Kaizan

20. Who has given the ‘Balance Score
Card’ as a measurement based
performance management strategy ?
(A) Robert S. Kaplan and David P.
Norton
(B) Hammel and Prahallad
(C) Stablein and Nord
(D) Pascale and Athos


21. Who had advanced the ‘Business
Process Reengineering’ concept ?
(A) K. Pang and N. Oliver
(B) R. Stablein and W. Nord
(C) Micheal Hammer and James
Champy
(D) M. Mandenhall and U.Oddon

22. Which of the following statements is
not true about the five disciplines
identified by Peter Senge ?
(A) Personal Mastery in the first
discipline
(B) Mental models is not included
in the five disciplines
(C) Building shared vision is a part
of the five disciplines
(D) System thinking is the last
discipline

23. Who has started that “Collective
bargaining is essentially a process in
which employees act as a group in
seeking to shape conditions and
relationships in their employment.
(A) R. F. Hoxie
(B) L. G. Reynolds
(C) Dale Yoder
(D) J. F. Richardson

24. In which year the formation of the
National Renewal Fund to protect
the interest of the workers was
announced :
(A) 1956
(B) 1991
(C) 1969
(D) 1992

25. Identify the factors which do not
help organisation in dealing with
knowledge management
(A) Improve the returns
(B) Improve competency
(C) Do not exploit opportunity
(D) Great value for core business

26. Who are not the actors according to
Dunlop’s framework of industrial
relations system ?
(A) Managers and their
representatives
(B) Workers and their
organisations
(C) Specialized government
agencies
(D) Communities and their
associations

27. According to whom ‘Conflict is
necessary but it can be and needs to
be managed and resolved’.
(A) Unitarists
(B) Pluralists
(C) Classicalists
(D) Modernists


28. Who observed that the respect for
rules depends on the manner of their
formulation ?
(A) Web, S. and Web, B.
(B) Flanders, A.
(C) Durkheim, E.
(D) Gouldner, A.

29. The concept/theory of industrial
capitalism/dialectical materialism
was developed by :
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dunlop J. T.
(D) Thakur C. P.

30. Benefits (India) of globalization like
sustained economic growth, free
markets, economic globalization,
privatisation etc., were summarised
by :
(A) First National Commission on
Labour
(B) Second National Commission
on Labour
(C) National Labour Board
(D) International Labour
Organisation

31. Globalization is ruthless, rootless,
jobless, fruitless was stated by :
(A) U. N. O
(B) U. N. D. P
(C) I. L. O
(D) W. H. O

32. The Origin, growth and development
of employment’s organizations in
India can be identified as :
(A) Before 1933
(B) After 1933
(C) Before 1947
(D) After 1947

33. The International Organization of
Employer’s (I.O.E) with
headquarters in Genevas was
formulated in
(A) 1910
(B) 1920
(C) 1930
(D) 1940

34. Trade Union movement in India
emerged between
(A) 1920-1930
(B) 1850-1870
(C) 1870-1880
(D) 1930-1947
35. The code of discipline in industry
was adopted by the Indian labour
conference (tripantite) in
(A) 1948
(B) 1958
(C) 1968
(D) 1950


36. The constitution of India upholds the
principle ‘Freedom of Association’
as a fundamental right enunciated by
I. L. O. convention in
(A) Article 20(C)
(B) Article 19(C)
(C) Article 24(C)
(D) Article 18(C)

37. Training refers to
(A) An act of increasing the
knowledge and skill of an
employee for doing a
particular job
(B) A short term educational
process and utilising
systematic and organised
procedure by which employees
learn technical knowledge and
skills for a definite purpose.
(C) It bridges the differences
between job requirements and
employee’s present
specifications
(D) All of the above

38. Which of the following is not an
objectives of sensitivity training ?
(A) Awareness of behavioural
pattern of oneself and others
(B) Increased openness and greater
concern for others
(C) Increased tolerance and less
ethnic presudice
(D) Potentialities for the next level
job
39. Match the following with List-A to
List-B
List-A List-B
(a) Job
Rotation
(i) The trainer
appraises the
performance
of the trainee,
provides
feedback
information
and corrects
the trainee
(b) Job
Instruction
(ii) The
movement
of the
trainee from
one job to
another
(c) Vestible
training
(iii) Simulation
of actual
work
conditions
in a class
room
(d) Programmed
Instruction
(iv) The subject
matter to be
learned is
presented in
a services of
carefully
planned
sequential
units.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

40. Off the job training does not include :
(A) Role playing
(B) Lecture method
(C) Coaching
(D) Conference or discussion


41. Arrange the following steps of
training procedure in proper
sequence
a. Preparing the trainee
b. Preparing the instructor
c. Presenting the operation
d. Getting ready to teach
e. Tryout the trainee’s
performance
f. Follow up
(A) a, b, c, d, e, f
(B) b, a, d, c, e, f
(C) f, e, d, c, a, b
(D) a, d, c, e, b, f

42. Which of the following is not correct
about Organisation Development ?
(A) It is not a top management led
and supported process.
(B) It is a process of planned
change.
(C) It is an ongoing collaborative
management of organisation
culture
(D) It is a problem solving process.

43. Who has given the concept of
OCTAPACE culture ?
(A) Dharni P. Sinha
(B) T. V. Rao
(C) D. M. Pestonjee
(D) Udai Pareek

44. The components of Marvin
Weisbord’s six box model are
(A) Purposes, structure, rewards,
mechanisms, relationships and
leadership
(B) Processes, structure, resources,
mechanisms, relationships and
leadership
(C) Performance, structure,
rewards, machines,
relationships and leadership
(D) Purposes, structure, resources,
machines, relationships and
leadership

45. Action research, as a methodology
for behavioural science was
proposed by
(A) Wendell L. French
(B) P. F. Drucker
(C) Kurt Lewin
(D) Reddin

46. The process of comparing work and
service methods against the best
practices and outcomes in industry is
known as
(A) Benchmarking
(B) Kaizens
(C) Quality Circles
(D) None of the above

47. In a learning organisation
(A) Vision is provided by top
management
(B) Conflicts are resolved through
power and hierarchical
influence
(C) Formulation and
implementation of ideas takes
place at all levels of
organisation
(D) All the above


48. When an organization outsources the
responsibilities for the end-to-end
delivery of the recruitment/selection
process covering all vacancies is
(A) Recruitment process and
screening
(B) Business process and
screening
(C) Knowledge process and
screening
(D) All the above

49. Lean production aims at :
(A) Continuous improvement
(B) Aim at zero defects
(C) Just-in-time inventory system
(D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following is not a
decision role identified by Henry
Mintzberg
(A) The spokesperson role
(B) The Entrepreneurial role
(C) The Disturbance handler role
(D) The Resource allocator role

51. Which one is not of Michael Porters
five force model of industry analysis
(A) Threat of new entrants
(B) Substitutes
(C) Intensity of rivalry among
existing players
(D) Cost leadership

52. Which one is not a part of
Mc Kinsy’s 7‘s’ framework ?
(A) Systems
(B) Strategy
(C) Standards
(D) Style

53. The change in specialization and
integration in organization context is
called :
(A) Co-ordination
(B) Co-operation
(C) Organizational restructuring
(D) Feedback

54. Which one is a part of performance
measurement ?
(A) Trait
(B) Behaviour
(C) Outcome
(D) All the above

55. Which of the following is a single
use plan ?
(A) Budget
(B) Rule
(C) Procedure
(D) Policy


56. The basic role of policy is
(A) To provide guidelines for
action
(B) To set procedures
(C) To give direction for
motivation
(D) To prescribe methods

57. Grievance Handing Machinery is
given in
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Factories Act
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

58. Who has given the ‘expectancy
theory’ of Motivation ?
(A) Abraham Maslow
(B) Victor Vroom
(C) Frederick Herzberg
(D) Clayton Adler

59. The categories of human process,
technostructural, human resources
management and strategic
applications are related to :
(A) Change management
(B) O. D. application
(C) Training
(D) Action research

60. The constitution of site appraisal
committees is under the :
(A) Factories Act, 1948
(B) Contract labour (Regulation
and Abolition) Act, 1970
(C) Maternity Benefit Act, 1965
(D) Employees State Insurance
Act, 1948

61. Under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948 the appropriate government
shall fix the minimum rates of wages
payable to the employees employed
in an employment specified in
(A) Schedule I part I
(B) Schedule I part II
(C) Schedule I, Part I, II and the
employments and added under
section 27
(D) Schedule I and II

62. Under the Equal Remuneration Act,
1976 remuneration means
(A) Basic wage only
(B) Basic wage and dearness
allowance
(C) Basic wage and emoluments
what soever payable
(D) None of the above

63. Under the Payment of Wages Act,
1936 the maximum limit on
deductions should not ordinarily
cross
(A) 50 percent generally and 65
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives
(B) 60 percent generally and 75
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives
(C) 50 percent generally and 75
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives
(D) 40 percent generally and 75
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives

64. Draft standing orders are to be
submitted within
(A) Two years from the date on
which the Act is applicable in
five copies.
(B) One year from the date on
which the Act is applicable in
five copies
(C) Six months from the date on
which the Act is applicable in
five copies
(D) Six months from the date on
which the act is applicable in
ten copies

65. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act,
1972 the maximum gratuity payable
is
(A) ` 10 lakhs
(B) ` 8 lakhs
(C) ` 5 lakhs
(D) ` 3.5 lakhs

66. To avoid over crowding the space
provided for each worker under the
Factories Act, 1948 is
(A) 12 cubic metres for factories
built before 1948 and 14.2
cubic meters for those built
after 1948
(B) 10 cubic metres for factories
built before 1948 and 14.2
cubic meters for those built
after 1948
(C) 9.9 cubic metres for factories
built before 1948 and 14.2
cubic meters for those built
after 1948
(D) 9.9 cubic meters for factories
built before 1948 and 14.4
cubic meters for those built
after 1948.

67. Who is an ‘exempted employee’
under the Employee’s state
Insurance Act, 1948 ?
(A) Employee who is minor
(B) Employee who is not liable
under the Act to pay the
employee’s contribution
(C) Minor employee who is not
liable under the Act to pay the
employee’s contribution
(D) None of the above

68. ‘Unemployment allowance’ payable
is stated in
(A) Employee State Insurance Act,
1948
(B) Unorganised Sector Workers
Social Security Act, 2005
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) None of the above

69. Trade union means any combination
formed primarily for the purpose of
regulating the relations between
(A) Workmen and employers
permanently
(B) Workmen and workmen
permanently
(C) Workmen and employers,
workmen and workmen,
employers and employers
temporary or permanent
(D) Workmen and employers,
workmen and workmen,
employers and employers
permanently

70. Under the Factories Act, 1948 the
working hours of 8 per day and 48
per week
(A) include spread over.
(B) are minimum working hours
(C) include rest interval period.
(D) do not include rest interval
period.

71. Match the following schedules under
the I. D. Act, 1947
(a) I schedule (i) conditions
of service
for change
of which
notice is to
be given
(b) II and III
schedules
(ii) Labour
courts and
Industrial
Tribunals
(c) IV schedule (iii) Industries
which may
be declared
as public
utility
services
(d) V schedule (iv) Unfair labour
practices
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

72. In USA, the Labour Management
Relations Act (Taft Hartley Act) was
enacted in :
(A) 1937
(B) 1947
(C) 1957
(D) 1967

73. Recognition of the trade union in
industry under the code of discipline
was developed in the year
(A) 1952
(B) 1957
(C) 1958
(D) 1962

74. Who considered collective
bargaining as the most important
concept for determining the terms
and conditions of employment
(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(B) Robert Hoxie
(C) John T. Dunlop
(D) Samuel Gompers

75. Where the recruitment happens
through the compulsory intervention
of trade unions, the system is called
(A) Closed shop
(B) Union shop
(C) Open shop
(D) None of the above



ANSWER

Q01 B
Q02 B
Q03 C
Q04 C
Q05 C
Q06 C
Q07 B
Q08 D
Q09 B
Q10 B
Q11 B
Q12 B
Q13 D
Q14 B
Q15 B
Q16 D
Q17 B
Q18 B
Q19 D
Q20 A
Q21 C
Q22 B
Q23 C
Q24 B
Q25 C
Q26 D
Q27 A
Q28 C
Q29 A
Q30 B
Q31 B
Q32 A
Q33 B
Q34 A
Q35 B
Q36 B
Q37 D
Q38 D
Q39 B
Q40 C
Q41 B
Q42 A
Q43 D
Q44 A
Q45 C
Q46 A
Q47 C
Q48 D
Q49 D
Q50 A
Q51 D
Q52 C
Q53 C
Q54 D
Q55 A
Q56 A
Q57 A
Q58 B
Q59 B
Q60 A
Q61 C
Q62 C
Q63 C
Q64 C
Q65 A
Q66 C
Q67 B
Q68 A
Q69 C
Q70 D
Q71 C
Q72 B
Q73 B
Q74 D
Q75 A

TODAY IBPS HR SO MODEL PAPER JAN 22 aa

                                                          http://ibpseg.blogspot.in/ 

1. Which of the following principles of
management was not given by Fayol ?
(A) Unity of direction
(B) Subordination of individual
interest to common interest
(C) Stability of tenure
(D) Standardisation


2. Arrange different phases of
Hawthorne experiments in their right
sequence :
a. Relay assembly test room
experiments
b. Bank wiring observation test
c. Illumination experiment
d. Personal counselling
e. Mass interviewing programme
(A) a, b, c, d, e
(B) c, a, e, b, d
(C) c, b, e, a, d
(D) e, d, c, b, a



3. Delphi technique is used in
(A) Organising
(B) Operating
(C) Staffing
(D) Forecasting


4. Narrow span of control results into
(A) Tall structure
(B) Flat structure
(C) Mechanistic structure
(D) All the above


5. Which of the following is correct about
‘Grapevine’ ?
(A) It tends to exist when members
of formal group know oneanother
well.
(B) It is the result of social forces at
work place.
(C) It is more common in times of
high organisational excitement.
(D) All the above.


6. The following concept is developed on
unitarism, individualism, high
commitment and strategic alignment.
(A) Personnel Management
(B) Human Resource Management
(C) Industrial Relations
(D) Personnel Administration


7. Human Resource Planning include
(A) Scenario planning
(B) Action planning
(C) Demand and Supply forecasts
(D) All the above


8. Which one is not a part of recruitment
process ?
(A) Determining requirements
(B) Planning recruitment campaign
(C) Attracting candidates
(D) Selecting candidates


9. Which one is not a non-quantitative job
evaluation method ?
(A) Ranking method
(B) Grading method
(C) Point rating method
(D) Job-classification method


10. Consider the following punishments in
disciplinary actions :
(i) Warning
(ii) Demotion
(iii) Censure
(iv) Dismissal
Which of the above fall under minor
punishment ?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)


11. Which of the following factors are
included in the calculation of human
development index ?
(A) Life expectancy
(B) Adult literacy
(C) Decent standard of living
(D) All the above


12. Who is not associated with
development of human development
index ?
(A) Mahabub-ul-Haq
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Meghnad Desai
(D) Sudhir Anand


13. The sequence of human resource
development activities according to
Leonard Nadler are
(A) Education, training and
development
(B) Development, training and
education
(C) Training, education and
development
(D) Training, development and
education


14. Who introduced the concept of quality
circles in India ?
(A) P. V. Rao
(B) Udai Pareek
(C) Dharani P. Sinha
(D) S. R. Udpa


15. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of training evaluation ?
(A) Reaction, learning, behaviour
and results
(B) Learning, reaction, behaviour
and results
(C) Learning, behaviour, reaction
and results
(D) Reaction, learning, results and
behaviour


16. Which of the following is the outcome
of job satisfaction ?
(A) High employee turnover
(B) High productivity
(C) Absenteeism
(D) All the above


17. Under Alderfer’s ERG theory, the
three core needs are
(A) Emotional, Relational, and
Growth
(B) Emotional, Rational and Growth
(C) Existence, Reliability and Gain
(D) Existence, Relatedness and
Growth


18. The group to which a person would
like to belong is known as
(A) Primary Group
(B) Membership Group
(C) Reference Group
(D) None of the above


19. The Managerial Grid was given by
(A) Rensis Likert
(B) Kurt Lewin
(C) Hersey Blanchard
(D) Blake and Mouton


20. Arrange the following stages of group
dynamics in right sequence :
a. Norming
b. Performing
c. Storming
d. Forming
(A) d, c, a, b
(B) a, b, c, d
(C) d, c, b, a
(D) c, d, b, a


21. Identify the correct definition of
industrial relations :
(A) Relations between or among
human beings
(B) Relations between employer and
employees as individuals
(C) Relations between parties in an
employment context
(D) Collective relationship between
management and trade unions


22. Who has propounded the system
concept of industrial relations ? Find
out from the following :
(A) L. N. Allen Flander
(B) L. N. Flax
(C) John T. Dunlop
(D) Neil N. Chamberlein


23. Which is the correct order of
settlement of industrial disputes ?
a. Industrial Tribunal
b. National Tribunal
c. Conciliation
d. Labour Court
(A) c, a, d, b
(B) c, d, a, b
(C) a, d, c, b
(D) c, b, d, a


24. Which of the following is not a
Tripartite body ?
(A) Works Committee
(B) I. L. O
(C) Indian Labour Conference
(D) Wage Boards


25. The code of discipline was ratified by
the Indian Labour Conference to
ensure discipline in industry. Identify
the year of ratification out of the
following :
(A) 1957
(B) 1958
(C) 1942
(D) 1962


26. Which of the following is not a
characteristics of Trade Union ?
(A) Is an association of employers or
the employees or of the
independent workers ?
(B) Is relatively a permanent
combination but not temporary
or casual.
(C) Is an association of workers who
are engaged in not securing
economic benefits for their
members.
(D) Is influenced by a member of
ideologies.


27. Recognition of trade union is made by
the provision of
(A) Trade Unions Act of 1926
(B) Industrial Dispute Act 1947
(C) Code of Discipline
(D) Factories Act of 1948


28. Which is not a structure of Trade
Union of Industrial Organisation ?
(A) Craft union
(B) General union
(C) Industrial union
(D) Consumers’ union


29. A Trade Union should be registered as
per the law must have
(A) 20% of the workers
(B) 150 workmen
(C) Minimum 17 persons
(D) None of the above


30. The founder of Ahmedabad Textile
Labour Association was
(A) V. V. Giri
(B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) B. P. Wadia
(D) N. M. Lokhande


31. If there is wilful removal or disregard
by the workman of any safety guard or
other device which he knew to have
been provided for the purpose of
securing safety of workman,
(A) Employer is liable to pay
compensation
(B) Employer is not liable to pay
compensation
(C) Appropriate government is liable
to pay compensation
(D) The Trade Union is liable to pay
compensation


32. In case of fatal accident if the
commissioner serves notice to the
employer based on his source
(a) the employer can neglect the
notice.
(b) if the employer thinks liable, he
shall make the deposit within
sixty days of the service of
notice.
(c) if the employer thinks liable, he
shall make the deposit within
thirty days of the service of
notice.
(d) if the employer is not liable, he
shall in his statement indicate the
grounds on which he disclaims
liability.
(A) All statements are correct.
(B) All statements are incorrect.
(C) Only (a) and (d) are correct.
(D) Only (c) and (d) are correct.


33. The maternity leave period with full
wage is
(A) six months
(B) twelve weeks
(C) four months
(D) sixteen weeks


34. Match the following :
(a) Royal Commission on
Labour
(i) 1937
(b) Bombay Textile Labour
Enquiry committee
(ii) 1946
(c) Second Labour
Ministers’ Conference
(iii) 1929
(d) Labour Investigation
Committee
(iv) 2002
(e) Second National
Commission on Labour
(v) 1941
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (v) (iv)
(C) (iii) (v) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (v) (ii) (iv)


35. The goal of I LO is
(A) creation of jobs for men and
women
(B) not just creation of jobs but the
creation of jobs of acceptable
quality
(C) not overcoming under
employment
(D) not to provide freedom of
choice in employment


36. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 is
applicable to an employee who draws
wage or salary of
(A) ` 3500 in case of apprentice
(B) ` 5000 in case of apprentice
and employee
(C) ` 7500 in case of employee
only
(D) ` 10,000 in case of employee
only


37. Unfair Labour Practices are listed in
(A) the Factories Act, 1948.
(B) the Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946.
(C) the Industrial Disputes Act,
1947.
(D) the Trade Unions Act, 1926.


38. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 has
(A) one schedule covering different
types of industries.
(B) one schedule covering different
types of industries, shops and
establishments.
(C) one schedule covering shops
and establishments.
(D) two schedules covering
industrial establishments and
agriculture.


39. If deduction is made contrary to the
provisions of the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936 the aggrieved employee can
write to the inspector appointed under
the Act within the time period given
below from the date on which the
deduction from wages was made or the
date on which the payment of wages is
due
(A) two years
(B) one year
(C) twelve weeks
(D) six weeks


40. The maximum daily hours of work in a
day with normal wage allowed in
factories is
(A) 11 hours
(B) 10 hours
(C) 9 hours
(D) 8 hours


41. Assertion (A) : Intra-mural and extramural
welfare are mutually
complimentary.
Reason (R) : The work-life balances
need to be ensured in order to
get the best output from an
employee.
(A) Assertion is wrong but Reason
is logical.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are
wrong.
(C) Assertion and Reason are right.
(D) The Assertion is right but
Reason is wrong.


42. Which of the following statements is
not true in explaining the concept and
scope of labour welfare ?
(A) Labour welfare has no roots in
social work.
(B) Long Arm of the job and social
invasion of workplace’
concepts, explain the mutuality
between intramural and extramural
labour welfare
(C) Labour welfare is a social
concept.
(D) Corporate social responsibility
is an extended concept of
welfare.


43. Who is the champion of the ‘Welfare
movement’ propagated in mid 19th
century ?
(A) Frederick Winslow Taylor
(B) Andrew Ure
(C) Sheebhom Rownlvee
(D) Robert Owners


44. Sequence the following developments
by their period of occurrence from
earliest to the latest :
(i) The Labour Investigation
Committee
(ii) The Whitley Commission
(iii) The Enactment of Factories
Act
(iv) The 1st National Commission
on Labour
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)


45. Which of the following statements
relating to Welfare Officer is not true
(A) The provision of Welfare
Officer is given in both the
Factories Act, 1948 and the
Mines Act, 1952.
(B) Welfare Officer’s duties and
responsibilities are defined and
prescribed in the legislation.
(C) Welfare Officer’s appointment
is tagged to the provision of
minimum workforce employed
in an organisation
(D) The Welfare Officer’s role was
designed as a ‘Third force’.


46. Which of the following statements
about characteristics of labour is not
true ?
(A) Labour is a perishable
commodity.
(B) Labour cannot be separated
from the person.
(C) Workers have no reserve price.
(D) Labour is as flexible and
mobile as capital.


47. Which of the following statements
about labour market is not true ?
(A) Labour market like commodity
market is analyzed by supply,
demand and price equilibrium.
(B) Labour Market is relatively
more local than commodity
market.
(C) Unlike a commodity market,
the relationship between a
buyer and seller in a labour
market is not temporary.
(D) Monopoly in the labour market
is high.


48. Money Wage is otherwise called as
(A) Real wage
(B) Living wage
(C) Nominal wage
(D) Fair wage


49. Wage Boards set right
(A) Inter-regional differentials
(B) Inter-sectoral differentials
(C) Intra-industry differentials
(D) Inter-industry differentials


50. Which of the following is not a
determinant of wages ?
(A) Prevailing wages
(B) Bargaining strength of Unions
(C) Job Evaluation
(D) Performance Appraisal




ANSWERS


SC55
Q01 D
Q02 B
Q03 D
Q04 A
Q05 D
Q06 B
Q07 D
Q08 D
Q09 C
Q10 C
Q11 D
Q12 B
Q13 C
Q14 D
Q15 A
Q16 B
Q17 D
Q18 C
Q19 D
Q20 A
Q21 D
Q22 C
Q23 B
Q24 A
Q25 B
Q26 C
Q27 C
Q28 D
Q29 D
Q30 B
Q31 B
Q32 D
Q33 A
Q34 D
Q35 B
Q36 D
Q37 C
Q38 D
Q39 C
Q40 C
Q41 C
Q42 A
Q43 D
Q44 A
Q45 B
Q46 D
Q47 D
Q48 C
Q49 C
Q50 D

TODAY IBPS SO HR MODEL PAPERS JAN 22 b

Match the following :
List – I
(Propagators)
List – II
(Contributions)
a. Ivan Pavlov i. Social Learning
Thoery
b. B.F. Skinner ii. S-O-B-C.
Model
c. Albert
Bandura
iii.Classical
Conditioning
d. Freud Luthans iv. Operant
Conditioning
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv ii iii i


2. ‘Case of Schimdt’ is associated with
which School of Management thought ?
(A) Human Relations School
(B) Behavioural School
(C) Systems Approach
(D) Scientific Management


3. Arrange the following systems in the
right order on the managerial style
continuum suggested by Rensis Likert
(a) Consultative
(b) Benevolent Authoritative
(c) Exploitative Authoritative
(d) Joint decision-making
(A) c, b, a, d
(B) c, a, b, d
(C) b, a, c, d
(D) c, d, b, a


4. Performance Appraisal is a primary
human resource management process
that links employees and organizations
and provides input for other processes
through these means :
(A) Identification, measurement,
management.
(B) Assessment, direction,
development.
(C) Recruitment, Selection,
onboarding.
(D) Skill, effort, responsibility.


5. The amount sufficient to enable a
worker to live in reasonable comfort,
having regard to all obligations to
which an average worker would
ordinarily be subject to
(A) Minimum Wage
(B) Fair Wage
(C) Living Wage


6. Technique of drawing conclusions
from a candidate’s hand writing about
future performance in a role is
(A) Graphology
(B) Physiognomy
(C) Phrenology
(D) Astronomy


7. Which of the following is method of
Union recognition ?
(A) Secret Ballot
(B) Membership Verification
(C) Check-off System
(D) All the above
(D) Nominal Wage

8. Find out the approach which does not
include industrial relations
(A) Psychological approach
(B) Sociological approach
(C) Human relations approach
(D) Physiological approach


9. Workers do join Trade Unions : Find
out the incorrect reason out of the
following :
(A) To attain economic security
(B) To improve bargaining power
(C) To ventilate their grievancies
(D) To satisfy their family needs


10. Match the following :
List – I
(Unions)
List – II
(Functions)
a. Craft
Union
i. Associations of
workers or
different
categories
b. General
Union
ii. Based on craft
non-managerial
personnel
c. Industrial
Union
iii.Either
unionization of
the same industry
or different
industry.
d. Federation iv. Unionisation of
workers any region
or any job
occupation
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) i ii iii iv


11. Who coined the term ‘informal
sector’?
(A) Keith Davis
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Mahabub Ul Haq
(D) Keith Hart


12. Reducing the number of employees at
operational level and reorganizing the
work system in order to attain greater
productivity.
(A) Downsizing
(B) Manpower inventory
(C) Manpower forecasting
(D) All the above


13. Which of the following is not a method
of social security ?
(A) Social Assistance
(B) Social Action
(C) Social Insurance
(D) Mutual Assistance


14. Which of the following statements
about workers’ participation in
Management in India is not true ?
(A) It is a part of the 20 point
Economic programme.
(B) It is provided in the Directive
Principles of State Policy.
(C) It is made a Constitutional
provision under the 42nd
Amendment Act.
(D) It is a justiceable right of the
workers.


15. Who has given the concept of ‘Core
competence’ ?
(A) Sumantra Ghosal & C.A. Bartlett
(B) T. Deal and A. Kennedy
(C) C.K. Prahalad and G. Hamel
(D) C.A. Forehand

16. Who has advanced the Goal setting
theory of Performance Management ?
(A) E.A. Locke & Gary Lutham
(B) F. Trompenaavs and Charles
Hamp
(C) R. Tung and Arthur Anderson
(D) J.C. Usunier and P.N. Gharvi


17. Match the following :
List – I
(Authors)
List – II
(Books)
a. Tom Peters
&
Waterman
i. The Future
Shock
b. Thomas
Friedman
ii. The
Revolutionary
Wealth
c. Alvin Tofler iii.The World is flat
d. Heidi &
Alvin Tofler
iv. In search of
Excellence
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) i iv ii iii
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) iii iv ii i


18. Who has advance the PDCA cycle of
Quality Management ?
(A) Joseph M. Juran
(B) W. Edwards Deming
(C) Kaoru Ishikawa
(D) Phillip Crosby


19. Which of the following statements
about I.L.O. is not true ?
(A) I.L.O is a tripartite body.
(B) I.L.O was established in 1919.
(C) I.L.O passes only
recommendations.
(D) I.L.O conventions are mandatory
for those countries which ratify
them.


20. Match the following contributions to
TQM with the contributors :
List – I
(Contributors)
List – II
(Contributions)
a. Walter A.
Shewart
i. Concept of
Internal
Customer
b. Joseph M.
Juran
ii. Product Design
Quality
c. Kaoru
Ishikawa
iii.Statistical
control charts
d. Genichi
Taguchi
iv. Quality as
‘fitness for use’
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii i iv
(D) iii iv i ii


21. Power distance, uncertainty avoidance,
individualism and masculinity as
dimensions of cross–cultural
comparative model is given by
(A) Kluckhohn & Strodthbeck
(B) Geert Hofstede
(C) Andres Lauvent
(D) Hall and Trompenaar


22. Which of the following organizations
are world oriented ?
(A) Geocentric
(B) Polycentric
(C) Regiocentric
(D) Ethnocentric


23. Find out the characteristics of
collective bargaining which is not
applicable;
(A) It is a collective process.
(B) It is a flexible process.
(C) It is not a bipartile process.
(D) It is interdisciplinary system.

24. Find out the one which is not an
element of employee empowerment :
(A) Belief system and trust
(B) Purposefulness
(C) Arbitrariness
(D) Self sufficiency or Competency


25. Which of the following is not a factor
of emotional intelligence ?
(A) Ability
(B) Reason
(C) Emotion
(D) Thinking without feeling


26. Find out the origin of the statement in a
socialist democracy labour is a partner
in the common task of development,
should participate in it with
enthusiasm.
(A) Constitution of India
(B) Directive principles of State
Policy
(C) Industrial Policy Resolution 1956
(D) Royal Commission on Labour


27. The First Indian Trade Union led by
women was
(A) A.I.T.U.C.
(B) I.N.T.U.C.
(C) H.M.S.
(D) C.I.T.U.


28. The first commission to recommend
tripartism consultation in India was
(A) The First National Commission
on Labour
(B) The Second National
Commission on Labour
(C) The Royal Commission on
Labour
(D) The Indian Labour Conference


29. India ratified I.L.O. Convention No.
144 on tripartite consultation among
government, employer’s and worker’s
representatives in :
(A) 1968
(B) 1958
(C) 1978
(D) 1988


30. A Joint Consultative Board (J.C.B.) of
industry and labour was set up in 1951
with the initiative of :
(A) V.V. Giri
(B) G.L. Nanda
(C) Morarji Desai
(D) Jagjivan Ram


31. Three tier framework of industrial
relations was proposed by :
(A) Kochan, T.A., et. al
(B) Richardson J.H.
(C) Clark Kerr
(D) John T. Dunlop


32. A system of industrial relations where
social and labour issues are discussed
between trade unions and management
at enterprise level is :
(A) Bipartism
(B) Tripartism
(C) Social dialogue
(D) None of the above


33. The relations between government and
transnational corporations are divided
into liberal, neo-mercantilist and neoimperialist
categories by :
(A) Richardson, J.H.
(B) Clark Kerr
(C) Kochan, T.A., et.al
(D) John T. Dunlop

34. Which act requires employers in
industrial establishments to define the
conditions of employment ?
(A) The Factories Act, 1948
(B) The Industrial Disputes Act,1947
(C) The Industrial Employment
(standing orders) Act, 1946
(D) The Trade Union Act, 1926


35. Who identified the types of unions as
business, predatory, dependent and
friendly ?
(A) Roberts, B.C.
(B) Robert F. Hoxie
(C) Kirkaldy, H.S.
(D) Perlman Selig


36. Who proposed that industrial relations
activities take place among three
principal social partners at three
levels ?
(A) John T. Dunlop
(B) Richardson, J.H.
(C) Kochan, T.A. et.al
(D) Clark Kerr


37. Arrange the following steps involved
in establishing a career development
system in proper sequence :
(a) Vision
(b) Needs
(c) Action plan
(d) Results
(A) d, c, b, a
(B) b, a, c, d
(C) b, d, a, c
(D) c, a, b, d


38. Human values in regard to
Management Development do not
include
(A) Dignity and forgiveness
(B) Arrogance and anger
(C) Gratitude and gentleness
(D) Humility and Honesty


39. Management development is
concerned with learning of
(A) Mechanical skills
(B) Specific job skills
(C) Conceptual and creative skills
(D) All the above


40. According to Robert L. Katz, the right
sequence of relative importance of
various managerial skills from top to
bottom is
(a) technical
(b) human
(c) conceptual
(A) c, b, a
(B) a, b, c
(C) c, a, b
(D) b, c, a


41. The concept of management by
objectives was given by
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Luther Gulick
(C) Rensis Likert
(D) Blake and Mouton

42. OCTAPACE culture means
(A) Openness-cooperation-Truth-
Authenticity-Proaction-
Autonomy-Collaboration-
Experimentation
(B) Openness-Confrontation-Trust-
Autonomy-Proaction-Authority-
Collaboration-Experimentation
(C) Openness-Confrontation-Trust-
Authority-Proaction-Autonomy
cooperation-Experimentation
(D) Openness-Confrontation-Trust-
Authenticity-Proaction-
Autonomy-Collaboration-
Experimentation


43. Empowerment means authority to
make decisions in ones area of
operation
(A) by taking approval from the
senior
(B) without having to get approval
from anyone else
(C) without caring for the
consequences
(D) All the above


44. Self perceived talents, motives and
values that influence career of an
individual are known as
(A) career anchors
(B) career plans
(C) career aims
(D) none of the above


45. Who has advanced the Bottom of the
Pyramid concept ?
(A) Garry Dessler
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) C.K. Prahlad
(D) Michael Porter


46. Which one is not a general conceplt of
T.Q.M. ?
(A) Continuous Improvement
(B) Team Work
(C) Strategy
(D) Quality Education


47. Which one of the following is not an
interpersonal role identified by Henry
Mintzberg ?
(A) The Figure head role
(B) The Leader role
(C) The Liason role
(D) The Resource – allocator role


48. Which one is part of Michael Porter’s
generic strategies ?
(A) Cost leadership strategy
(B) Focus strategy
(C) Differentiation strategy
(D) All the above


49. Which one is not a part of
M.C. Kinsy’s 7’s frame work ?
(A) Standards (B) Structure
(C) Skills (D) Strategy


50. A corporate wide pay plan that uses a
structured formula to allocate a portion
of annual company profits to
employees is known as :
(A) Gain sharing
(B) Profit sharing
(C) ESOPS sharing
(D) All of the above


51. Who has called the POSDCORB a
‘folklore’ ?
(A) Michael Armstrong
(B) Michael Poole
(C) Rosemary Stewart
(D) Henry Mirzberg

52. Who has called the scientific
management a ‘rabble hypothesis’?
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Douglas McGregor
(D) None of the above


53. ‘Red hot stove’ rule of disciplinary
action was suggested by
(A) Douglas Mc Gregor
(B) Dale Yader
(C) Richard P. Calhoon
(D) Fred Luthans


54. “Model Grievance Procedure” is given
in the
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Employee State Insurance Act
(C) Industrial Employment (standing
orders) Act
(D) Code of Discipline


55. Which of the following is a reason for
supporting a wider span of control ?
(A) To reduce opportunities for
delegations
(B) To have tighter control within the
organisation
(C) To increase contact between
managers and employees
(D) To reduce a process of delaying


56. A manager may delegate any of the
following except
(A) Authority
(B) Work load
(C) Responsibility
(D) None of the above


57. Which of the following is Herzberg’s
hygine factors ?
(A) Recognition at work place
(B) Reasonable salary
(C) Responsibility for work
(D) Sense of achievement


58. During whose prime ministership the
New Economic Policy was introduced
in India ?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(D) A.B. Vajpayee


59. Arrange the needs in the order given
by Abraham Maslow in his need
hierarchy theory of motivation.
(a) Esteem need
(b) Self-actualization need
(c) Physiological need
(d) Safety needs
(e) Social needs
(A) d, a, c, b, e
(B) c, d, e, a, b
(C) a, d, c, b, e
(D) c, e, d, a, b


60. What is the limit of the salary of the
supervisor to be covered under the I.D.
Act, 1947 ?
(A) ` 1200 per month
(B) ` 1600 per month
(C) ` 2500 per month
(D) ` 3500 per month

61. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Principle of
Protection
and Welfare
i. The Trade
Union Act, 1926
b. Principle of
Social
Justice
ii. Robert Owen
c. Principle of
Regulation
iii.Payment of
Gratuity Act
d. Principle of
Social
Security
iv. The Philadelphia
Charter
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iv ii iv i
(D) iv iii i ii


62. The basic postulates on which the ILO
standards lie are
(A) Labour is not a commodity
(B) Freedom of expression and of
association are essential to
sustained progress
(C) Poverty anywhere constitutes
danger to prosperity everywhere
(D) All the above


63. Which of the following statements
is / are true ?
(a) Labour Legislation is part of
Social legislation.
(b) Social Legislation is part of
Labour Legislation.
(c) Government is the regulatory
authority in case of Social
Legislation and Labour
Legislation.
(d) Civil Law judgement is based on
earlier judgements and labour
law judgement is based on
workers welfare.
(A) All the statements are true.
(B) (b) is true.
(C) (d) is true.
(D) (a), (c) and (d) are true.


64. The article in Indian Constitution that
imposes prohibition on traffic in
human beings, beggar and other similar
forms of forced labour is
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 45


65. The Industrial Employment (standing
orders) Act, 1946 applies to every
establishment employing
(A) 100 workmen
(B) 150 workmen
(C) 150 workmen on any day
preceeding 12 months
(D) 150 workmen on any day
preceeding 12 months and the
government can order by
application to establishments
employing less than 100.


66. The following persons are constructed
as insider of a registered trade union.
(A) Honorary member from the other
organization.
(B) Honorary member from other
profession.
(C) Politician who guides the
registered trade union.
(D) retired and retrenched members
of the trade union.


67. Workers’ facilitation centres shall be set
up by the facilitating agency under the
(A) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) The unorganized sector workers’
Social Security Act, 2005

68. If the money is due from the employer
under the settlement or award, the
workman or his assignee can make an
application to the appropriate
government for the recovery within the
period given below.
(A) One year.
(B) One year and also after the said
period of the appropriate
government is satisfied that the
applicant has sufficient cause for
not making the application
within one year.
(C) Two years.
(D) Three years.


69. Ambulance room shall be provided if
(A) 30 womens workers are
employed under Maternity
Benefit Act, 1965.
(B) Creche is provided under the
Factories Act, 1948.
(C) 500 workers are employed in the
factory under the Factories Act,
1948.
(D) The Workmens’ Compensation
Act, 1923 is applicable to the
factory.


70. The first factory commission was
appointed in
(A) 1875 (B) 1881
(C) 1885 (D) 1895


71. Under the payment of Bonus Act,
1965, the gross profits derived by an
employer from an establishment in
respect of any accounting year shall be
computed
(A) In case of Banking Company
according to schedule II and in
any other case schedule I.
(B) In case of Banking Company
according to schedule I and in
any other case schedule II.
(C) In case of Banking Company and
in any other case schedule I.
(D) In case of Banking Company and
in any other case schedule II.


72. Which Act provides for the
appointment of conciliation officers
and adjudication authorities ?
(A) The Factories Act, 1948
(B) The Industrial Disputes Act,
1947
(C) The Trade Unions Act, 1926
(D) None of the above


73. The first to introduce the term
collective bargaining :
(A) Sidney and Beatrice webb
(B) Samuel Gompers
(C) Clark Kerr
(D) Robert Hoxie


74. Find the machinery which is not
method of settlement of industrial
dispute :
(A) consultation
(B) works committee
(C) conciliation
(D) Adjudication


75. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Human
Capital
Approach
i. David
Mcclelland
b. Socio-
Psychological
Approach
ii. UNDP
c. Poverty
Alleviation
Approach
iii.T.W. Scultz
d. World Human
Development
Approach
iv. World Bank
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv ii i iii






ANSWERS

Q01 C
Q02 D
Q03 A
Q04 A
Q05 A
Q06 A
Q07 D
Q08 D
Q09 D
Q10 A
Q11 D
Q12 A
Q13 B
Q14 D
Q15 C
Q16 A
Q17 C
Q18 B
Q19 C
Q20 D
Q21 B
Q22 A
Q23 C
Q24 C
Q25 D
Q26 C
Q27 C
Q28 C
Q29 C
Q30 B
Q31 A
Q32 A
Q33 C
Q34 C
Q35 B
Q36 C
Q37 B
Q38 B
Q39 C
Q40 A
Q41 A
Q42 D
Q43 B
Q44 A
Q45 C
Q46 C
Q47 D
Q48 D
Q49 A
Q50 B
Q51 D
Q52 B
Q53 A
Q54 D
Q55 C
Q56 C
Q57 B
Q58 C
Q59 B
Q60 D
Q61 A
Q62 D
Q63 D
Q64 B
Q65 D
Q66 D
Q67 D
Q68 B
Q69 C
Q70 A
Q71 B
Q72 B
Q73 A
Q74 A
Q75 C