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1. Match the following :
List-I List-II
(a) F. J.
Roethlisberger
& Dickson
(i) New Patterns
of
Management
(b) Elton Mayo (ii) The Human
side of
enterprise
(c) Douglas Mc
Gregor
(iii) The
Management
and Worker
(d) Rensis Likert (iv) The human
problems of
industrial
civilization
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. Who is associated with the
‘illumination experiment’ of the
Hawthorne experiment
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) George A. Pennock
(C) F. J. Roethlisberger
(D) None of the above
3. The paper “Engineer as an
Economist”, which influence F. W.
Taylor to develop his Scientific
Management Principles was
authored by
(A) Charles A. Babbage
(B) Henry Gnatt
(C) Henry R. Towne
(D) Louis D. Brandies
4. The systematic process of making
job valuation determinations about a
job based upon its content and the
way is which it actually functions
within the organization is called :
(A) Job Determination
(B) Job Analysis
(C) Job Evaluation
(D) Job Grading
5. Sensitivity training is also known as :
(A) X- group training
(B) Y – group training
(C) t – group training
(D) Core group training
6. In which public sector organization
quality circles was first introduced in
India.
(A) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.
(B) Bharath Earth Movers Ltd.
(C) Bharath Heavy Electricals
Ltd.
(D) Hindustan Machine Tools
Ltd.
7. Which is not the characteristics of
grievances ?
(A) Factual
(B) Fabricated
(C) Disguised
(D) Imaginary
8. Match the following :
Enactment Year
(a) Industrial
employment
Standing orders Act
(i) 1948
(b) Industrial Disputs
Act
(ii) 1926
(c) Factories Act (iii) 1947
(d) Trade Unions Act (iv) 1946
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
9. List of unfair labour practices on the
part of the trade unions and
employers was included in
(A) Factories Act
(B) Industrial Dispute Act
(C) Trade union Act
(D) None of the above
10. Not more than 50% of members of
the office bears of Trade union can
be outsiders, as per provisions of
legislations.
(A) Industrial Dispute Act
(B) Trade Union Act
(C) Mines Act
(D) ESI Act
11. Who coined the term Scientific
Management ?
(A) Louis D. Brandies
(B) F. W. Taylor
(C) Douglas Mc Gregor
(D) None of the above
12. Who propagated the quality of work
life as a descending participation
mechanism ?
(A) Frederick Herzberg
(B) Eric Tryst
(C) A. K. Rice
(D) John T. Dunlop
13. Statutory Minimum wage is fixed
under
(A) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(C) Workmen’s Compensation
Act, 1923
(D) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
14. The employee State Insurance Act
was enacted the basis of which
committee’s report ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar Committee
(B) B. P. Adarkar Committee
(C) Royal Commission on Labour
(D) Labour Investigation
Committee
15. Who is the author of the book “Fifth
Discipline the Art and Practice of the
Learning Organization” ?
(A) Peter Clark
(B) Peter Segne
(C) Peter F. Drucker
(D) Tom Peters
16. Who has advanced the single loop
and double loop learning models ?
(A) Albert Bandura
(B) Robert Blake
(C) Robert Katz
(D) Chris Argyris
17. “Creating jobs, guaranteeing rights
at work, extending social protection
and promoting social dialogue” are
contents of which of the following
programmes of ILO ?
(A) Human Rights
(B) Decent Work
(C) International Programme on the
Elimination of Child Labour
(D) INDUS Child Labour Project
18. In which company ‘Six Sigma’ was
first experimented ?
(A) Toyota
(B) Motorola
(C) Sony
(D) Ford
19. The philosophy of ‘never-ending
improvement’ in total quality
management is called
(A) Kanaban
(B) Business Process
Re-engineering
(C) Benchmarking
(D) Kaizan
20. Who has given the ‘Balance Score
Card’ as a measurement based
performance management strategy ?
(A) Robert S. Kaplan and David P.
Norton
(B) Hammel and Prahallad
(C) Stablein and Nord
(D) Pascale and Athos
21. Who had advanced the ‘Business
Process Reengineering’ concept ?
(A) K. Pang and N. Oliver
(B) R. Stablein and W. Nord
(C) Micheal Hammer and James
Champy
(D) M. Mandenhall and U.Oddon
22. Which of the following statements is
not true about the five disciplines
identified by Peter Senge ?
(A) Personal Mastery in the first
discipline
(B) Mental models is not included
in the five disciplines
(C) Building shared vision is a part
of the five disciplines
(D) System thinking is the last
discipline
23. Who has started that “Collective
bargaining is essentially a process in
which employees act as a group in
seeking to shape conditions and
relationships in their employment.
(A) R. F. Hoxie
(B) L. G. Reynolds
(C) Dale Yoder
(D) J. F. Richardson
24. In which year the formation of the
National Renewal Fund to protect
the interest of the workers was
announced :
(A) 1956
(B) 1991
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
25. Identify the factors which do not
help organisation in dealing with
knowledge management
(A) Improve the returns
(B) Improve competency
(C) Do not exploit opportunity
(D) Great value for core business
26. Who are not the actors according to
Dunlop’s framework of industrial
relations system ?
(A) Managers and their
representatives
(B) Workers and their
organisations
(C) Specialized government
agencies
(D) Communities and their
associations
27. According to whom ‘Conflict is
necessary but it can be and needs to
be managed and resolved’.
(A) Unitarists
(B) Pluralists
(C) Classicalists
(D) Modernists
28. Who observed that the respect for
rules depends on the manner of their
formulation ?
(A) Web, S. and Web, B.
(B) Flanders, A.
(C) Durkheim, E.
(D) Gouldner, A.
29. The concept/theory of industrial
capitalism/dialectical materialism
was developed by :
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dunlop J. T.
(D) Thakur C. P.
30. Benefits (India) of globalization like
sustained economic growth, free
markets, economic globalization,
privatisation etc., were summarised
by :
(A) First National Commission on
Labour
(B) Second National Commission
on Labour
(C) National Labour Board
(D) International Labour
Organisation
31. Globalization is ruthless, rootless,
jobless, fruitless was stated by :
(A) U. N. O
(B) U. N. D. P
(C) I. L. O
(D) W. H. O
32. The Origin, growth and development
of employment’s organizations in
India can be identified as :
(A) Before 1933
(B) After 1933
(C) Before 1947
(D) After 1947
33. The International Organization of
Employer’s (I.O.E) with
headquarters in Genevas was
formulated in
(A) 1910
(B) 1920
(C) 1930
(D) 1940
34. Trade Union movement in India
emerged between
(A) 1920-1930
(B) 1850-1870
(C) 1870-1880
(D) 1930-1947
35. The code of discipline in industry
was adopted by the Indian labour
conference (tripantite) in
(A) 1948
(B) 1958
(C) 1968
(D) 1950
36. The constitution of India upholds the
principle ‘Freedom of Association’
as a fundamental right enunciated by
I. L. O. convention in
(A) Article 20(C)
(B) Article 19(C)
(C) Article 24(C)
(D) Article 18(C)
37. Training refers to
(A) An act of increasing the
knowledge and skill of an
employee for doing a
particular job
(B) A short term educational
process and utilising
systematic and organised
procedure by which employees
learn technical knowledge and
skills for a definite purpose.
(C) It bridges the differences
between job requirements and
employee’s present
specifications
(D) All of the above
38. Which of the following is not an
objectives of sensitivity training ?
(A) Awareness of behavioural
pattern of oneself and others
(B) Increased openness and greater
concern for others
(C) Increased tolerance and less
ethnic presudice
(D) Potentialities for the next level
job
39. Match the following with List-A to
List-B
List-A List-B
(a) Job
Rotation
(i) The trainer
appraises the
performance
of the trainee,
provides
feedback
information
and corrects
the trainee
(b) Job
Instruction
(ii) The
movement
of the
trainee from
one job to
another
(c) Vestible
training
(iii) Simulation
of actual
work
conditions
in a class
room
(d) Programmed
Instruction
(iv) The subject
matter to be
learned is
presented in
a services of
carefully
planned
sequential
units.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
40. Off the job training does not include :
(A) Role playing
(B) Lecture method
(C) Coaching
(D) Conference or discussion
41. Arrange the following steps of
training procedure in proper
sequence
a. Preparing the trainee
b. Preparing the instructor
c. Presenting the operation
d. Getting ready to teach
e. Tryout the trainee’s
performance
f. Follow up
(A) a, b, c, d, e, f
(B) b, a, d, c, e, f
(C) f, e, d, c, a, b
(D) a, d, c, e, b, f
42. Which of the following is not correct
about Organisation Development ?
(A) It is not a top management led
and supported process.
(B) It is a process of planned
change.
(C) It is an ongoing collaborative
management of organisation
culture
(D) It is a problem solving process.
43. Who has given the concept of
OCTAPACE culture ?
(A) Dharni P. Sinha
(B) T. V. Rao
(C) D. M. Pestonjee
(D) Udai Pareek
44. The components of Marvin
Weisbord’s six box model are
(A) Purposes, structure, rewards,
mechanisms, relationships and
leadership
(B) Processes, structure, resources,
mechanisms, relationships and
leadership
(C) Performance, structure,
rewards, machines,
relationships and leadership
(D) Purposes, structure, resources,
machines, relationships and
leadership
45. Action research, as a methodology
for behavioural science was
proposed by
(A) Wendell L. French
(B) P. F. Drucker
(C) Kurt Lewin
(D) Reddin
46. The process of comparing work and
service methods against the best
practices and outcomes in industry is
known as
(A) Benchmarking
(B) Kaizens
(C) Quality Circles
(D) None of the above
47. In a learning organisation
(A) Vision is provided by top
management
(B) Conflicts are resolved through
power and hierarchical
influence
(C) Formulation and
implementation of ideas takes
place at all levels of
organisation
(D) All the above
48. When an organization outsources the
responsibilities for the end-to-end
delivery of the recruitment/selection
process covering all vacancies is
(A) Recruitment process and
screening
(B) Business process and
screening
(C) Knowledge process and
screening
(D) All the above
49. Lean production aims at :
(A) Continuous improvement
(B) Aim at zero defects
(C) Just-in-time inventory system
(D) All of the above
50. Which one of the following is not a
decision role identified by Henry
Mintzberg
(A) The spokesperson role
(B) The Entrepreneurial role
(C) The Disturbance handler role
(D) The Resource allocator role
51. Which one is not of Michael Porters
five force model of industry analysis
(A) Threat of new entrants
(B) Substitutes
(C) Intensity of rivalry among
existing players
(D) Cost leadership
52. Which one is not a part of
Mc Kinsy’s 7‘s’ framework ?
(A) Systems
(B) Strategy
(C) Standards
(D) Style
53. The change in specialization and
integration in organization context is
called :
(A) Co-ordination
(B) Co-operation
(C) Organizational restructuring
(D) Feedback
54. Which one is a part of performance
measurement ?
(A) Trait
(B) Behaviour
(C) Outcome
(D) All the above
55. Which of the following is a single
use plan ?
(A) Budget
(B) Rule
(C) Procedure
(D) Policy
56. The basic role of policy is
(A) To provide guidelines for
action
(B) To set procedures
(C) To give direction for
motivation
(D) To prescribe methods
57. Grievance Handing Machinery is
given in
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Factories Act
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
58. Who has given the ‘expectancy
theory’ of Motivation ?
(A) Abraham Maslow
(B) Victor Vroom
(C) Frederick Herzberg
(D) Clayton Adler
59. The categories of human process,
technostructural, human resources
management and strategic
applications are related to :
(A) Change management
(B) O. D. application
(C) Training
(D) Action research
60. The constitution of site appraisal
committees is under the :
(A) Factories Act, 1948
(B) Contract labour (Regulation
and Abolition) Act, 1970
(C) Maternity Benefit Act, 1965
(D) Employees State Insurance
Act, 1948
61. Under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948 the appropriate government
shall fix the minimum rates of wages
payable to the employees employed
in an employment specified in
(A) Schedule I part I
(B) Schedule I part II
(C) Schedule I, Part I, II and the
employments and added under
section 27
(D) Schedule I and II
62. Under the Equal Remuneration Act,
1976 remuneration means
(A) Basic wage only
(B) Basic wage and dearness
allowance
(C) Basic wage and emoluments
what soever payable
(D) None of the above
63. Under the Payment of Wages Act,
1936 the maximum limit on
deductions should not ordinarily
cross
(A) 50 percent generally and 65
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives
(B) 60 percent generally and 75
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives
(C) 50 percent generally and 75
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives
(D) 40 percent generally and 75
percent in case of payments
due to the cooperatives
64. Draft standing orders are to be
submitted within
(A) Two years from the date on
which the Act is applicable in
five copies.
(B) One year from the date on
which the Act is applicable in
five copies
(C) Six months from the date on
which the Act is applicable in
five copies
(D) Six months from the date on
which the act is applicable in
ten copies
65. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act,
1972 the maximum gratuity payable
is
(A) ` 10 lakhs
(B) ` 8 lakhs
(C) ` 5 lakhs
(D) ` 3.5 lakhs
66. To avoid over crowding the space
provided for each worker under the
Factories Act, 1948 is
(A) 12 cubic metres for factories
built before 1948 and 14.2
cubic meters for those built
after 1948
(B) 10 cubic metres for factories
built before 1948 and 14.2
cubic meters for those built
after 1948
(C) 9.9 cubic metres for factories
built before 1948 and 14.2
cubic meters for those built
after 1948
(D) 9.9 cubic meters for factories
built before 1948 and 14.4
cubic meters for those built
after 1948.
67. Who is an ‘exempted employee’
under the Employee’s state
Insurance Act, 1948 ?
(A) Employee who is minor
(B) Employee who is not liable
under the Act to pay the
employee’s contribution
(C) Minor employee who is not
liable under the Act to pay the
employee’s contribution
(D) None of the above
68. ‘Unemployment allowance’ payable
is stated in
(A) Employee State Insurance Act,
1948
(B) Unorganised Sector Workers
Social Security Act, 2005
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) None of the above
69. Trade union means any combination
formed primarily for the purpose of
regulating the relations between
(A) Workmen and employers
permanently
(B) Workmen and workmen
permanently
(C) Workmen and employers,
workmen and workmen,
employers and employers
temporary or permanent
(D) Workmen and employers,
workmen and workmen,
employers and employers
permanently
70. Under the Factories Act, 1948 the
working hours of 8 per day and 48
per week
(A) include spread over.
(B) are minimum working hours
(C) include rest interval period.
(D) do not include rest interval
period.
71. Match the following schedules under
the I. D. Act, 1947
(a) I schedule (i) conditions
of service
for change
of which
notice is to
be given
(b) II and III
schedules
(ii) Labour
courts and
Industrial
Tribunals
(c) IV schedule (iii) Industries
which may
be declared
as public
utility
services
(d) V schedule (iv) Unfair labour
practices
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
72. In USA, the Labour Management
Relations Act (Taft Hartley Act) was
enacted in :
(A) 1937
(B) 1947
(C) 1957
(D) 1967
73. Recognition of the trade union in
industry under the code of discipline
was developed in the year
(A) 1952
(B) 1957
(C) 1958
(D) 1962
74. Who considered collective
bargaining as the most important
concept for determining the terms
and conditions of employment
(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(B) Robert Hoxie
(C) John T. Dunlop
(D) Samuel Gompers
75. Where the recruitment happens
through the compulsory intervention
of trade unions, the system is called
(A) Closed shop
(B) Union shop
(C) Open shop
(D) None of the above
ANSWER
Q01 B
Q02 B
Q03 C
Q04 C
Q05 C
Q06 C
Q07 B
Q08 D
Q09 B
Q10 B
Q11 B
Q12 B
Q13 D
Q14 B
Q15 B
Q16 D
Q17 B
Q18 B
Q19 D
Q20 A
Q21 C
Q22 B
Q23 C
Q24 B
Q25 C
Q26 D
Q27 A
Q28 C
Q29 A
Q30 B
Q31 B
Q32 A
Q33 B
Q34 A
Q35 B
Q36 B
Q37 D
Q38 D
Q39 B
Q40 C
Q41 B
Q42 A
Q43 D
Q44 A
Q45 C
Q46 A
Q47 C
Q48 D
Q49 D
Q50 A
Q51 D
Q52 C
Q53 C
Q54 D
Q55 A
Q56 A
Q57 A
Q58 B
Q59 B
Q60 A
Q61 C
Q62 C
Q63 C
Q64 C
Q65 A
Q66 C
Q67 B
Q68 A
Q69 C
Q70 D
Q71 C
Q72 B
Q73 B
Q74 D
Q75 A
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