1. Match the following :
Thinker Management
Principle
a. F.W. Taylor i. Authority and
Responsibility
b. Henri Fayol ii. Hierarchy
c. Weber iii. Separation of
planning from
doing
d. Elton Mayo iv. Human
Relations
Codes : Approach
b c d
a
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iii ii i iv
2. Which of the following is the major
element of planning process ?
(A) Developing leadership abilities
(B) Selecting right people
(C) Perception of opportunities
(D) Motivating people
3. Which principle of management is
violated by matrix organisation
structure ?
(A) Division of Labour
(B) Unity of Direction
(C) Unity of Command
(D) None of the above
4. Which of the following involves
careful analysis of inputs and
corrective actions before operation is
completed ?
(A) Feed forward control
(B) Concurrent control
(C) Feedback control
(D) All the above
5. Which of the following is not a
semantic barrier of communication ?
(A) Faulty translation
(B) Ambiguous words
(C) Specialist’s language
(D) Inattention
6. People should be regarded as assets
rather than variable costs was
emphasised in
(A) Personnel Management
(B) Human Resource Management
(C) Personnel Administration
(D) Public Administration
7. The classical theorists favoured
organisation based on
(A) Civilian model
(B) Strategic model
(C) Military model
(D) None of the above
8. Job analysis includes :
(A) Job description and job
enlargement
(B) Job enlargement and job
enrichment
(C) Job description and job
specification
(D) All of the above
9. A test which measures, what it is
intended to measure is
(A) Reliable test
(B) Standardised test
(C) Objective test
(D) Valid test
10. An enquiry that is conducted afresh because of the objections raised by alleged employee is called
(A) Domestic enquiry
(B) De-novo enquiry
(C) Ex-parte enquiry
(D) None of the above
11. The concept of HRD scorecard was introduced in India by
(A) Udai Pareek
(B) Rao and Pareek
(C) T.V. Rao
(D) Arun Honappa
12. Performance appraisal by all the following parties is called 360 performance appraisal :
(A) Supervisors and Peers
(B) Subordinates and Employees themselves
(C) Users of Service and Consultants
(D) All the above
13. The following is the right process of training :
(A) Instructional design, validation, need analysis, implementation and evaluation
(B) Need analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation and evaluation
(C) Need analysis, validation, instructional design, implementation and evaluation
(D) Instructional design, need analysis, implementation, validation and evaluation
14. Fish bone analysis as a tool of quality circle was advanced by
(A) Edward Deming
(B) Joseph Juran
(C) Kouru Ishi Kawa
(D) Phillip Crosby
15. Match the following :
Books and Authors
Concepts
a. Games People i. Eric Bernie Play
b. I am OK you ii. Kurt Lewin
are OK
c. Johari iii. Thomas A.
Window Harris
d. Force Field iv. Joseph Lufth &
Analysis Harry Inghams
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii i ii iv
16. Which of the following decreases group cohesiveness ?
(A) Agreement on group goals
(B) Frequency of interaction
(C) Large group size
(D) All the above
17. Managers subscribing to ______
assumptions attempt to structure, control and closely supervise their employees.
(A) Theory ‘X’
(B) Theory ‘Y’
(C) Both Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’
(D) Neither Theory ‘X’ nor Theory ‘Y’
18. According to Fiedler’s Contingency
Model of Leadership, which one of the
following is a situational variable ?
(A) Leader – Member relationship
(B) Organisational System
(C) Degree of task structure
(D) Leader’s position power
19. The right sequence of steps in
Lewin’s change procedure is
(A) Unfreezing – Moving – Freezing
(B) Moving – Unfreezing – Freezing
(C) Unfreezing – Freezing – Moving
(D) Freezing – Moving – Unfreezing
20. Which of the following is not a
traditional method of organisational
development ?
(A) Survey feedback
(B) Sensitivity training
(C) Process consultation
(D) Managerial grid
21. Characteristics of Industrial Relations
do not include :
(A) Industrial Relations are outcome
of employment relationship in an
industrial enterprise.
(B) Industrial Relations promote the
skills and methods of adjustment
and co-operation with each other.
(C) Industrial Relations create
complex rules and regulations to
maintain cordial relations.
(D) Industrial Relations system
creates an environment
distrust and conflict.
22. Who are not the Actors of Industrial
Relations ?
(A) Workers and their organisations
(B) Employers and their
organisations
(C) Community and cultural
associations
(D) Government and the role of the
State
23. Which of the following is a machinery
for settlement of industrial disputes ?
(A) Indian Labour Conference
(B) Joint Management Council
(C) Industrial Tribunal
(D) Standing Labour Committees
24. Match List – I with List – II :
List – I List – II
a. Joint Management i. 1958
Council consisting of
representatives of
workers and
management was
considered by the
Indian Labour
Conference (ILC) in its
15th Session in the year
b. Works Committees ii. 1947
were set-up under the
Industrial Disputes Act
in the year
c. ILO established in the iii. 1919
year
d. First National iv. 1969
Commission on Labour
submitted its report in
the year
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) ii iv i ii
25. Which of the following trends in the employment relations in the new economic era is not correct ?
(A) Declining stability and security
(B) Declining labour intensity
(C) No shift from contract of service to contract of service
(D) Declining mutual commitment
26. A Trade Union means
“An association of workers in one or more professions carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest in connection with their daily work”.
Identify the author :
(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(B) J. Cunnison
(C) G.D.H. Cole
(D) Clyde E. Dankert
27. A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area, if it has membership of
(A) 10% of the workers in that industry.
(B) 15% of the workers in that area.
(C) 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.
(D) 30% of the workers in similar industry.
28. Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union ?
(A) N.M. Lokhande
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) G.L. Nanda
(D) M.K. Gandhi
29. Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade Unions is reduced by
(A) The provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947
(B) By voluntary tripartite code of inter-union rivalry – 1957
(C) By bipartite mutual agreement at the industry level
(D) Above all
30. Match the following trade unions according to the year of formation :
List – I List – II
a. AITUC i. 1947
b. CITU ii. 1948
c. INTUC iii. 1920
d. HMS iv. 1970
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
31. ‘Employment Injury’ means personal injury to an employee caused by accident or occupational disease arising out of and in the course of employment being an insurable employment if the accident occurs or occupational disease is contracted only within territorial limits of India and not outside India.
The above statement is
(A) correct.
(B) incorrect.
(C) true only in case of occupational injury.
(D) true only in case of accident.
32. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend
(A) two consecutive meetings
(B) three meetings intermittently
(C) three consecutive meetings
(D) four consecutive meetings
33. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(A) individual manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent.
(B) managing agent includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer.
(C) only employer can act as managing agent.
(D) the appropriate government shall appoint managing agent.
34. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(A) together can be applicable.
(B) the Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(C) the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(D) if the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
35. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948 ?
(A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
(B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
(C) List of occupational diseases.
(D) None of the above
36. A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the executive or any other office bearer of the registered trade union if he attained the age of
(A) Fifteen years
(B) Eighteen years
(C) Twenty one years
(D) Twenty five years
37. The registered trade union can collect political fund from its members as a
(A) general fund
(B) cannot collect political fund
(C) separate fund from the interested members
(D) only from political parties
38. ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
(a) not interim determination of labour court
(b) not arbitration award under Section 10A
(c) not final determination of labour court
(d) not final determination of arbitration award under section 10A
(A) All statements are true.
(B) (a) and (d) are true.
(C) (b) is true.
(D) All statements are wrong.
39. The dispute of individual workman is deemed to be industrial dispute if the dispute or difference is connected with or arising out of the following where no other workman nor any union of workman is a party to the dispute.
(A) Grievance of an individual workman.
(B) Discharge of an individual workman.
(C) Dismissal of an individual workman.
(D) Discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise termination of services of an individual workman.
40. The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of Bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is
(A) ` 2,500 (B) ` 3,500
(C) ` 4,500 (D) ` 6,500
41. “A desirable state of existence comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well being” is the theme of which concept of Labour Welfare ?
(A) Social Concept
(B) Total Concept
(C) Relative Concept
(D) Positive Concept
42. Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare is relative to time and space.
Reason (R) : It shall be universal and perpetual.
(A) Assertion and Reason are right.
(B) Assertion is wrong and Reason is right.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
(D) Assertion is right but its explanation given in Reason is wrong.
43. Minimum conditions of welfare is explained by
(A) Dr. Aykroid’s formula
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
44. Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Welfare ?
(A) The Principle of Uniformity
(B) The Principle of Co-ordination and Integration
(C) The principle of Association
(D) The Principle of Timeliness
45. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Theme) (Theory)
a. The labour i. Trusteeship
welfare Theory
philosophy is
meant for
guarding the
interests of
labour against
the exploitation
of employers.
b. The labour ii. Placating
welfare Theory
philosophy
exposes the
cause of
empathic
considerations by
the employer of
employee well
being
c. The employer iii. Policing
has to set out a Theory
portion of the
profits for the
benefit of the
employees
d. Labour Welfare iv. Philanthropic
is provided for Theory
pacifying the
agitating
working class
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
46. “Labour is not a commodity” – is the
assertion made by
(A) the Declaration of Philadelphia
adopted by 26th session of ILO
(B) the Magna Carta
(C) the Constitution of India
(D) the International Labour
Conference
Match the following :
Concept Propagators
a. Industrial i. Karl Marx
Democracy
b. Industrial ii. Robert Owen
Citizenship
c. Class Conflict iii. Peter F. Drucker
d. Welfare iv. Sydney &
Movement Beatrize Webbs
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii i ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
48. Assertion (A) : Industrial Labour in
India has been migratory.
Reason (R) : Driving force in
migration comes almost entirely
from one end of the channel, that
is the village end.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) also is right.
(D) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
Match the following :
Theory of wages Propagators
a. Wage Fund Theory i. John Bates
Clark
b. Marginal ii. John
Productivity Davidson
Theory
c. Bargaining Theory iii. John Stuart
Mill
d. Investment Theory iv. Gilelman
Codes :
b c d
a
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iii ii iv
The “Marginal Discounted Product of
Labour” as a modified version of
Marginal Productivity Theory was
advanced by
(A) Taussig (B) Kalecki
(C) Ricardo (D) Adam Smith
ANSWERS
Q01 C
Q02 C
Q03 C
Q04 A
Q05 D
Q06 B
Q07 C
Q08 C
Q09 D
Q10 B
Q11 C
Q12 D
Q13 B
Q14 C
Q15 B
Q16 C
Q17 A
Q18 B
Q19 A
Q20 C
Q21 D
Q22 C
Q23 C
Q24 A
Q25 C
Q26 A
Q27 C
Q28 D
Q29 B
Q30 A
Q31 B
Q32 C
Q33 D
Q34 D
Q35 D
Q36 B
Q37 C
Q38 D
Q39 D
Q40 B
Q41 B
Q42 D
Q43 C
Q44 A
Q45 B
Q46 A
Q47 B
Q48 C
Q49 B
Q50 A
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