IBPS Eg

IBPS Eg

Wednesday, 22 January 2014

TODAY IBPS SO HR MODEL PAPERS jan 21a


1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer
Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at
any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will
not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1. Which of the following organisations
is generally a combination of
functional and project patterns of
departmentation ?
 (A) Line and staff organisation
 (B) Matrix organisation
 (C) Functional organisation  
 (D) All the above

2. A guideline that channels decision–
making is called a :
 (A) Strategy
 (B) Policy
 (C) Budget
 (D) Programme

3. Match the following :
Approach to
Management
Characteristics
(a) Management
science
approach
(i) Focus on
leadership and
motivation
(b) Situational
approach
(ii) Managerial
practices depend
on circumstances
(c) Interpersonal
behaviour
approach
(iii) Use of
mathematical
symbol and
relationship
(d) System
approach
(iv) Recognising
importance of
inter-relatedness
of management
functions and sub
– systems.
  (a) (b) (c) (d)
 (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
 (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
 (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
 (D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)


4. Semantic barriers in communication
occur due to :
 (A) Personality problems
 (B) Language problems
 (C) Attitude problems
 (D) All the Above

5. Who among the following undertook
the famous Hawthorne experiments ?
 (A) Elton Mayo and Blake
 (B) Elton Mayo and
Roethlisberger
 (C) Elton Mayo, Roethlisberger,
Blake
 (D) Elton Mayo, Roethlisberger,
Blake and Juran

6. Which of the following is true in
case of methods of Job analysis
information ?
 (A) The interview
 (B) Questionnaire
 (C) Observation and Participant
Diary
 (D) All the above

7. Which of the following is not a type
of test pertaining to selection
procedure ?
 (A) Aptitude Test
 (B) Achievement Test
 (C) Situational Test
 (D) Statistical Test


8. Arrange the following in a proper
sequence to show selection
procedure :
 (a) Medical Test
 (b) Screening of applications
 (c) Interview
 (d) Application of Psychological
Test
 (e) Written Test
 (f) Checking of references
 (g) Issuance of Appointment letter
 (A) b, e, d, c, f, a, g
 (B) e, d, b, c, a, g, f
 (C) d, b, e, c, a, g, f
 (D) f, a, g, b, c, d, e

9. Introducing the new employee to the
job, location, surroundings is called
 (A) Placement
 (B) Job design
 (C) Recruitment
 (D) Induction

10. Fish-bone Analysis is used in which
of the following :
 (A) Collective bargaining
 (B) Quality circles
 (C) Quality of work life
 (D) Training and Development

11. On–the–job training does not include :
 (A) Coaching
 (B) Job rotation
 (C) Under study
 (D) The case study

12. MBO was popularised as an
approach to planning by :
 (A) P.F. Drucker
 (B) Henry Fayol
 (C) F. W. Taylor
 (D) None of the above

13. The doctrine of Quality Circle got
popularity in which of the following
countries :
 (A) U.S.A
 (B) India
 (C) Japan
 (D) U.K

14. Under the equity theory of
motivation, equity occurs when :
 (A)
Person's outcomes
 Person's inputs
 <
Other's outcomes
 Other's inputs
 (B)
Person's outcomes
 Person's inputs
 >
Other's outcomes
 Other's inputs
(C)
Person's outcomes
 Person's inputs
 =
Other's outcomes
 Other's inputs
(D)
Person's outcomes
 Others outcomes
 =
Person's inputs
 Other's inputs

15. In Black and Mouton’s “Managerial
Grid”, the ‘task style’ represents :
 (A) High concern for people and
low concern for production.
 (B) High concern for people and
high concern for production.
 (C) Low concern for people and
low concern for production.
 (D) High concern for production
and low concern for people.

16. Group norms are strongly enforced
by groups if they
 (A) aid in group survival
 (B) simplify expected behaviour of
members
 (C) express central values of the
group
 (D) All the above
17. Which of the following is correct
about Organisational Development ?
 (A) It is a planned change
 (B) It aims at problem solving
 (C) It is focused primarily on
human and social relationships
 (D) All the above


18. Which of the following contributes
in promoting healthy industrial
relations in an organization ?
 (A) Compulsory Arbitration
 (B) Adjudication
 (C) Collective Bargaining
 (D) Voluntary Arbitration

19. In which of the following an
Individual Dispute can not take the
form of Industrial Dispute without
the help of the Trade Union ?
 (A) Termination
 (B) Dismissal / Discharge
 (C) Retrenchment
 (D) Promotion

20. The Code of Discipline makes
provisions for which of the
following :
 (A) Unfair Labour practices
 (B) Grievance redressal
 (C) Recognition of Trade Union
 (D) All the above

21. Which one of the following methods
is regarded as the most ideal for
settlement of Industrial Dispute ?
 (A) Adjudication
 (B) Mediation / Conciliation
 (C) Collective Bargaining
 (D) Voluntary Arbitration

22. Which of the following is not a
Trade Union method as described by
Webbs ?
 (A) Mutual Insurance
 (B) Strike
 (C) Collective Bargaining
 (D) Legal enactment

23. Which of the following directly aims
to control inter and intra–union
rivalry in India ?
 (A) The Industrial Dispute Act,
1947
 (B) Code of Discipline in Industry
 (C) Inter-Union Code of Conduct
 (D) Trade Unions Act, 1926

24. Arrange the following in a proper
sequence according to the year in
which they came into existence :
 a. Indian Labour Conference
 b. Defence of India Rules
 c. Industrial Disputes Act
 d. Scheme of Labour
Management Co-operation
(Joint Management Councils)
 e. First National Commission on
Labour
 f. Workers’ participation in
management in Industries
 g. Second National Commission
on Labour
 (A) a, c, d, e, f, g, b
 (B) b, a, c, d, e, f, g
 (C) c, d, e, f, g, a, b
 (D) d, e, f, g, a, b, c

25. First time the May Day was
celebrated in India in :
 (A) 1926
 (B) 1927
 (C) 1935
 (D) 1947


26. The provisions regarding equal pay
for equal work to men and women
are provided under which of the
following :
 (A) Fundamental Rights
 (B) Directive Principles of State
Policy
 (C) Preamble
 (D) In all the above

27. Assertion (A) :  Strikes in Public
Utility Services are prohibited
in breach of contract within 14
days of giving such notice
Reason (R) :  Strike is not the
right of workers in public
utility as compulsory
adjudication has been provided
for under Sec. 22 of the
Industrial Dispute Act, 1947.
 (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is
wrong.
 (B) Both (A) & (R) are correct.
 (C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is
correct.
 (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

28.  The name of which of the following
legislation has been recently changed :
 (A) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
 (B) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
 (C) Workmen’s Compensation
Act, 1923
 (D) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972

29.  The provisions of constituting a
political fund is given under which
of the following legislations ?
 (A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
 (B) Trade Unions Act, 1926
 (C) Employees Provident Funds
Act, 1952
 (D) Industrial Employment
(Standing Order’s) Act, 1946

30.  Which of the following is correct
with regard to termination of an
award ?
 (A) After completing the tenure.
 (B) After giving a notice by any
one of the parties.
 (C) After lapse of two months
from the date a notice is given
by any of the parties.
 (D) None of the above.

31.  Which of the following bodies is
provided under the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948 ?
 (A) Standing Labour Committee
 (B) Shop Level Council
 (C) Advisory Board
 (D) Joint Management Council

32.  Who among the following has been
authorized to certify standing orders.
under Industrial Employment
(standing order’s) Act, 1946 ?
 (A) Labour Inspector
 (B) Labour Commissioner
 (C) Chief Inspector of Factories
 (D) Certifying officers


33.  The wage period as provided under
the Payment of Wages Act, 1936
should not be more than
 (A) 30 days
 (B) 31 days
 (C) 1 month
 (D) None of the above

34.  Appointment of welfare officer is a
statutory requirement according to
 (A) Factories Act, 1948
 (B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
 (C) Trade Union Act, 1926
 (D) Workmen’s Compensation
Act, 1923

35.  Trusteeship theory of labour welfare
was propounded by
 (A) G. L. Nanda
 (B) Mahatma Gandhi
 (C) Indira Gandhi
 (D) None of the above

36.  One first aid box must be provided
for every
 (A) 150 workers
 (B) 200 workers
 (C) 250 workers
 (D) 300 workers

37.  The author of the book ‘Principles of
Labour Welfare’ is :
 (A) K. N. Vaid
 (B) M. V. Murthy
 (C) S. C. Pant
 (D) T. N. Bhagoliwal

38.  Who among the following is not
included in the labour force ?
 (A) Workers / employees
 (B) Self-employed people
 (C) Domestic servants
 (D) House-wives

39.  Which of the following types of
unemployment is also known as
Disguised Unemployment ?
 (A) Frictional unemployment
 (B) Technological unemployment
 (C) Seasonal unemployment
 (D) Under employment

40.  Out of the following theories of
wages which one is also called as
Iron Law of Wages ?
 (A) Wage Fund Theory
 (B) Subsistence Theory
 (C) Marginal Productivity Theory
 (D) Collective Bargaining Theory

41.  Outsourcing, when it is done
internationally, affects which of the
following in the country which out–
sources :
 (A) Supply of labour
 (B) Demand for labour
 (C) Both supply and demand
 (D) None of the above


42.  The Chapter on “Annual Leave with
Wages” is provided under the
 (A) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
 (B) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
 (C) Factories Act, 1948
 (D) Employees’ State Insurance
Act, 1948

43. ‘Consumer Price Index’ is taken into
account in connection with which of
the following :
 (A) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
 (B) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
 (C) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
 (D) Payment of Wages Act, 1936

44.  Which of the following Legislations
took into account the provision 81 A
of the Defence of India Rules ?
 (A) Trade Unions Act, 1926
 (B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
 (C) Industrial Employment,
(standing order’s) Act, 1946
 (D) All the above

45.  Plenary labour conference was initial
name of which of the following
organization ?
 (A) ILO
 (B) Standing labour committee
 (C) Indian labour conference
 (D) International labour conference

46.  The new approach to management
theory is :
 (A) Managerial roles approach
 (B) Workers’ participation
approach
 (C) Executive role approach
 (D) ‘Internal Management’ theory

47.  The classical managerial functions
are
 (A) Planning & controlling
 (B) Supervising through  officers,
and decision making
 (C) Conducting training activities
 (D) All the above

48.  Mintzberg’s approach is
 (A) A fool proof approach without
any demerits & criticism.
 (B) Faced with some criticism.
 (C) Considered as innovative and
without shortcomings.
 (D) None of the above

49.  The entrepreneurial role means
 (A) Leading
 (B) Element of planning
 (C) Playing pivotal role in
Industrial Relations
 (D) All of the above

50.  The Managerial Role approach
relates to
 (A) What workers’ actually do
while participating in
management ?
 (B) What managers actually do ?
 (C) What the various authorities in
the area of Industrial Relations
actually do ?
 (D) None of the above



ANSWERS


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